
Post by bigbizo8 on Mar 3, 2011 19:43:14 GMT 5
Is (ml) different then (cc's)?



Post by hoddle10 on Mar 3, 2011 20:08:54 GMT 5
Is (ml) different then (cc's)? no



Post by bigwheels3535 on Mar 3, 2011 20:41:49 GMT 5
Sacstock how are you calculating this? Remember diameter is different than circumfrence. .3 diameter is about 1 inch girth circumfrence.
if this is not why you are coming up with the rt numbers then you need to ask what length are you using to determine these numbers. example. The girth increase with of 20cc on a 3 inch penis (length) will be much more than a girth increase with 20cc on a 6 inch penis (length).
food for thought



Post by sacstock on Mar 4, 2011 0:47:25 GMT 5
Bigwheels,
I kept the units volumetric for ease of calculation. Since the PMMA is not injected into the glans, I used the volume of a cylinder to approximate the volume of the penis, subtracting 1.5" from erect length to account for the lack of glans injection. Thus, for a man with a 6" penis, I used a 4.5" long cylinder of appropriate circumference to approximate penile volume.
Given a specific poster's erect girth of 4.375", the diameter of the cylinder was 1.39 inches. The volume of that cylinder was 6.83 cubic inches. Given a PMMA injection of 20 cc's (approximately 1.22 cubic inches), the resulting volume would be 8.05 cubic inches. Keeping the length static, the diameter of the cylinder would now be 1.51 inches, and the girth (circumference) would be 4.74"
These stats are approximated from an actual patient. Yet, his girth gains are MUCH greater than this model. So I really think something else is going on in the tissue, as that PDF above indicates...
Thank you, Skeptical One!



Post by sparticus on Mar 4, 2011 2:49:33 GMT 5
The penis is not a hollow cylinder. The filler is injected over, not into, the corpora spongiosum and corpora cavernosa chambers, which make up the majority of the penis. So not that much would be needed to make a significant change in girth.



Post by mikehok on Mar 4, 2011 4:19:13 GMT 5
I agree with sacstock's calculations.
I looked at a 6in length x 5 ins girth penis and also deducted 1.5ins for glans. Converting all to cm to make things easy. so you have:
length (ex glans) : 11.43cm Girth: 12.7cm Volume 146cc
add 20cc gives the following
Volume of 166cc length (ex glans) : 11.43cm Girth: 13.5cm or 5.31inches
So the girth gain from 20cc extra volume would be an extra 0.3inch
So if people are gaining more than this, there must be something else going on. The carrier which is the majority of the volume of the filler disappears anyway, we know that. And new tissue is created around the remaining pmma. So I can only assume the new tissue created exceeds the volume of the original filler. However it's surprising people are gaining so much so early since the process of tissue creation is supposed to take several weeks. It is a little puzzling.
By the way using this method I calculated that the girth gain in the flaccid state would be twice as much, 0.6inch



Post by seeker on Mar 4, 2011 9:52:03 GMT 5
@spart...volume is volume. I don't believe the calc. are based on (filling) a hollow model. I know what you are saying though, given the volume added, a larger penis will have a smaller increase in diameter. If point is already made in posts above mine... well then I'm redundant.
It is making sense that the % of pmma reps just part (the %) of what is filling the volume.



Post by bigbizo8 on Mar 4, 2011 14:57:01 GMT 5
I'm really lost with all these different calculations! I got 20cc and a little over 6inches erect and was about 4.75 girth, so in all that said what girth gain u expect me to have?



Post by hoddle10 on Mar 4, 2011 15:48:25 GMT 5
I'm really lost with all these different calculations! I got 20cc and a little over 6inches erect and was about 4.75 girth, so in all that said what girth gain u expect me to have? Ignoring the fact pmma isn't put under the uretha (as it makes calculations too complex), to grow from 4.75" to 6", it would mean an increase in diameter of 1.01cm. That means 5mm thick of pmma. Assuming your gland is around 1" we can calculate volume of pmma to increase from 4.75 to 6 as 0.5cm X 12.065cm X 12.7cm = 76.6. So it to achieve the gains you got, it should have taken around 76.6 cc. But remember this is far form perfect, as it doesn't take into account the true length of the area being injected, as I just guessed at 5", or the fact the uretha areas doesn't have pmma under it or the the fact that some areas will have more than others (at the base it's easier to inject pmma than at the areas under the gland). But it at least tells us that he is injecting far more than 20cc, so i supect that my guess that when he says 20cc, he's talking about the amount of actual pmma, not including the carrier, which is the majority.



Post by bigbizo8 on Mar 4, 2011 17:19:43 GMT 5
Thanks Hoddle10 for that detailed answer. I really think that's a detailed informed answer! So if I can get a 1.5girth as u said I would be a happy man!! Thanks again.



Post by kingpin on Mar 5, 2011 3:06:36 GMT 5
You guys are really breaking this down to a science LOL I dont think the doctor has even made such calculations!!!



Post by mikehok on Mar 13, 2011 3:49:16 GMT 5
If the volumes quoted were referring to the pmma beads only and not the carrier, then 20cc of a 20% product would equate to 100cc of total carrier & pmma injected. That is a lot, I can't believe that.



Post by Skeptical One on Mar 13, 2011 17:03:38 GMT 5
PMMA has so many questions, and while many have been answered, many more have not. I have spoken to Wade about joining the forum and logging in on occasion to address certain questions that appear to have not been answered before. He'll obviously need the time to do this, and permission from his doctor. Not sure if it will happen, but if it does, I'll let you all know.



Post by mikehok on Mar 13, 2011 18:10:42 GMT 5
Skeptical, that's true, perhaps you should have a thread purely for questions which would need to be answered by the doctors.



Post by iceman on Mar 14, 2011 7:43:41 GMT 5
If the volumes quoted were referring to the pmma beads only and not the carrier, then 20cc of a 20% product would equate to 100cc of total carrier & pmma injected. That is a lot, I can't believe that. The fact sheet clearly states that 1015cc of PMMA is injected and that the solution is 80% carrier. It also suggests that the entire amount of the lost carrier volume is replaced with collagen. This would comport with those who report initial girth gains of 1+ inches, then a substantial reduction, then final gains close to (but somewhat less than) the initial gains.

